pmchugh wrote:daddy1gringo wrote:pmchugh wrote:Well, what about Luke (23:46): "Jesus called out with a loud voice, Father, into your hands I commit my spirit. When he had said this, he breathed his last"
Or even John (19:30): "Jesus said, It is finished. With that, he...gave up his spirit."
Contradiction
Sorry, no contradiction at all. Matthew and Mark mention one thing that Jesus said on the cross, Luke lists 3 others, and John 3 more. These are the well-known "seven last 'words'". The one in Luke is generally considered the last because the phrasing (και φωνησας φωνη μεγαλη ο ιησους ειπεν πατερ εις χειρας σου παραθησομαι το πνευμα μου και ταυτα ειπων εξεπνευσεν) carries more of a sense of sequentiality than that in John (οτε ουν ελαβεν το οξος ο ιησους ειπεν τετελεσται και κλινας την κεφαλην παρεδωκεν το πνευμα), but the wording in neither passage denotes that there could not be other things done or said in between. None of the other 5 even suggest it. Try again.
Nope not buying it,
You can choose to “buy” or “not buy” whatever you will, but it doesn’t change the fact that you have no clue what you are talking about.
John's verse implies he said "It is finished" precisely as he "gave up his spirit”
Wrong. John 19:30 “…ο ιησους > ho ioesus > Jesus/ ειπεν>eipen>said/ τετελεσται>tetelestai>”it is finished”, or “paid in full”/ και>kai>and – strong “and” sometimes translated “also” or “and also”/ κλινας>klinas>he bowed or inclined/ την κεφαλην>tein kephalon>the head/ παρεδωκεν>paradoken>he gave, yielded, surrendered, from παρα>para>with, or near, and διδωμαι>didomai>to give/ το πνευμα>to pneuma>the spirit, the same word also means “breath” (and “wind”) The “with that” that they stuck in in whatever translation you used isn’t in there. It was somebody’s idea of how to make the narrative go better. It’s also not there in the King James, New King James, English Standard or New American Standard versions; the more literal translations
So it says, ”Jesus said “tetelestai” and also inclined his head and surrendered his spirit.” Hmm, let’s look at Luke.
και φωνησας φωνη μεγαλη>kai phonesas phone megale>and (also) having cried with a loud (great) voice/ ο ιησους ειπεν>ho iesus eipen>Jesus said/ πατερ>pater>father/ εις χειρας σου>eis cheiras sou>into hands yours/ παραθησομαι>parathesomai>I yield, entrust, or surrender, from παρα>para>with, and τιθημι>titheimi>to place, connoting to lay something down in a horizontal position/ το πνευμα μου>to pneuma mou> the spirit (or breath) mine/ και ταυτα ειπων>and this having said/ εξεπνευσεν>exepneusen>”breathed his last” or “gave up the ghost”, from εξ>ex>out, and, once again, πνευμα>pneuma>breath or spirit.
Sounds like after shouting something, (tetelestai?), he inclined his head and surrendered his spirit, just like John said.
If you were remotely honest with yourself you would see that both Luke and John claim to have recorded what Jesus said right before he died,
If you were remotely honest with yourself you would see that they did no such thing.
at least in every single translation in existence.
Now that’s interesting. Did you read “every single translation in existence”? Of course not. By the way, how many translations
did you check before making that assertion?
To say he could have said one and then the other would also imply that the other Gospels did not know his last words, for if they did why would they not mention it?
I see, you know exactly what they had in mind . Tell me why do you think it would be of urgent importance to Luke and John to make sure everyone knows exactly which of the things Jesus said on the Cross was
the last one. Was that essential for the spiritual welfare of the people for whom they were writing these accounts? Or were they just trying to make sure they had it ready for Reader’s Digest’s next trivia quiz on famous last words?
Each of the Gospels was written at a particular time, from a particular point of view, for a specific purpose.
Luke was a Greek physician who traveled a bit with Paul. He wrote to provide an understanding of who Jesus was and what he did, to the Greeks and other Gentiles that he and Paul were preaching to. He was not even there at the crucifixion, but states clearly at the beginning of his Gospel that he has made an investigation into the facts based on what was handed down by those who were eyewitnesses, and other accounts already written.
John was one of the 12 apostles; as far as we know he is the only one who actually was at the Cross. He wrote his gospel when he was in his 90’s, in the first few years of the second century. His primary concern was the Gnostic heresies that were going around at the time, which screwed up the truth about Jesus’ nature as the Son of God, both fully divine and fully human.
I won’t get into Matthew and Mark, but the point is that there are a great many things that one of the writers saw fit to include but another didn’t. That is far from a contradiction. One tells the story of a leper who came to Jesus for healing, another sees fit to mention that he was one of two. Actually, this is evidence of the truth of the accounts, since if they had conspired to invent the story, as is frequently claimed, those are the exact kind of things that they would have “gotten straight”.
Either they deliberately mislead the reader on his last words or they do not agree on his last words. Take your pick.
I choose neither, and I am right.